📌 How to Use These Questions
Answer each question before reading the rationale. Write down your answer, then check. If you get it wrong — or got it right but were not confident — read the full rationale and note the legal principle. This active recall process is the most effective way to build exam-ready knowledge.
Federal Pharmacy Law — 20 Practice Questions
Question 1
A pharmacist receives an emergency telephone order for oxycodone 5mg tablets, #30, from a physician for a patient in acute pain. The pharmacist dispenses the medication. How many days does the prescriber have to provide a written hard-copy prescription to the pharmacy?
A. 3 days B. 7 days C. 14 days D. 30 days
✅ Answer: B — 7 days
Under the Controlled Substances Act, emergency oral prescriptions for Schedule II controlled substances are permitted when: (1) immediate dispensing is necessary, (2) no appropriate alternative exists, and (3) the prescriber cannot provide a written prescription at the time. The pharmacist may dispense only the quantity needed for the emergency period and must record the prescription in writing. The prescriber must provide a written Rx within 7 days (or postmarked within 7 days if mailed). Failure to follow up requires the pharmacist to notify the DEA.
Question 2
A patient's spouse comes to the pharmacy to pick up a prescription. The pharmacist does not know if the patient has authorized the spouse to pick up medications. Under HIPAA, the pharmacist may:
A. Release the prescription only after contacting the patient for verbal authorization B. Release the prescription if the pharmacist uses professional judgment that the patient would not object C. Never release the prescription to a third party without written authorization D. Release the prescription only if the spouse shows government-issued ID
✅ Answer: B — Professional judgment
HIPAA permits covered entities to disclose PHI to family members, relatives, or close personal friends involved in an individual's care when the pharmacist uses professional judgment that the patient would not object. If the patient is present and does not object, the disclosure is clearly permitted. If the patient is absent, the pharmacist may use professional judgment based on the circumstances. Written authorization is not required for treatment-related disclosures to those involved in the patient's care.
Question 3
A DEA-registered retail pharmacy conducts its biennial inventory. Under federal law, the biennial inventory for Schedule II controlled substances must be:
A. An exact count for all Schedule II substances B. An estimated count, unless a container holds more than 1,000 units C. An exact count for Schedule II, and an estimated count is acceptable for Schedule III–V D. Conducted on the anniversary of the initial inventory date only
✅ Answer: C — Exact count for CII, estimated for CIII–V
Under the CSA, the biennial inventory requires: (1) an exact count or measure of all Schedule II substances, and (2) an estimated count or measure for Schedule III–V substances, unless a container has been opened and holds more than 1,000 dosage units — in which case an exact count is required for that opened container. The biennial inventory must be conducted on any date within 2 years of the last inventory (not necessarily on the exact anniversary date).
Question 4
A retail pharmacy discovers that 50 tablets of oxycodone 10mg are unaccounted for and believes they were stolen. Under DEA regulations, the pharmacy must report this theft:
A. Within 1 business day of discovery on DEA Form 106 B. Within 7 days of discovery on DEA Form 222 C. Within 30 days of discovery on DEA Form 41 D. Only if more than 100 dosage units are missing
✅ Answer: A — 1 business day, DEA Form 106
Theft or significant loss of controlled substances must be reported to the DEA within 1 business day of discovery on DEA Form 106 (Report of Theft or Significant Loss). There is no minimum quantity threshold — any theft or significant loss must be reported. The pharmacy should also notify the local DEA Diversion Investigator. DEA Form 222 is used for ordering Schedule I and II substances; DEA Form 41 is used for requesting destruction authorization.
Question 5
Under the Poison Prevention Packaging Act, which of the following is EXEMPT from the child-resistant container requirement?
A. Metformin 500mg tablets, 90-day supply B. Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets C. Amoxicillin oral suspension D. Acetaminophen 325mg tablets, unit-of-use packaging
✅ Answer: B — Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets
Sublingual nitroglycerin tablets are permanently exempt from the PPPA child-resistant container requirement because rapid access to the medication is critical during a cardiac event. Other permanently exempt products include: oral contraceptives in manufacturer's dispenser packages, powdered OTC aspirin, effervescent aspirin tablets, and certain inhalation aerosols. Metformin, amoxicillin suspension, and acetaminophen are not permanently exempt — though patients or prescribers can request a non-CR waiver for specific dispensings.
Question 6
A patient asks to purchase pseudoephedrine 30mg tablets, 48-count (1,440mg total PSE). This is the patient's first PSE purchase this month. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), the pharmacist:
A. Cannot sell this quantity as it exceeds the daily limit B. May sell it; the purchase is within both daily and 30-day limits C. May sell it but must obtain a prescription first D. Cannot sell it without pharmacist verification of the patient's identity
✅ Answer: B — Within both limits
The CMEA limits PSE purchases to: 3.6 grams per day and 9 grams per 30-day period. This purchase contains 1,440mg (1.44g) of PSE — well within both limits. The pharmacist may sell it as long as: the product is stored behind the counter or in a locked cabinet, the purchaser presents government ID, and the sale is logged in the CMEA logbook (paper or electronic). No prescription is required for OTC PSE products; the CMEA restrictions replace the old prescription requirement.
Question 7
Under OBRA '90, a pharmacist's prospective drug use review (DUR) must screen for which of the following before dispensing a prescription for a Medicaid patient?
A. Therapeutic duplication only B. Drug-drug interactions only C. Drug-drug interactions, therapeutic duplication, incorrect dosage, drug-allergy interactions, clinical abuse or misuse, and drug-disease contraindications D. All of the above plus mandatory patient counseling regardless of patient preference
✅ Answer: C — All six screening categories
OBRA '90 requires prospective DUR to screen for: (1) drug-drug interactions, (2) therapeutic duplication, (3) incorrect dosage or duration, (4) drug-allergy interactions, (5) clinical abuse or misuse patterns, and (6) drug-disease contraindications. Counseling must be offered — not mandated regardless of patient preference. The patient may decline counseling, and the pharmacist should document the refusal. Note: OBRA '90 technically applies to Medicaid patients, but most states have extended equivalent standards to all patients by regulation.
Question 8
A pharmacist compounding a sterile IV medication for a specific patient with a valid prescription is operating under which regulatory framework?
A. 503B outsourcing facility standards under the DQSA B. 503A traditional compounding under the DQSA — not subject to federal cGMP C. FDA NDA approval process D. State law only — federal law does not apply to compounding
✅ Answer: B — 503A traditional compounding
Under the Drug Quality and Security Act (DQSA): 503A covers traditional compounding pharmacies that prepare medications for specific patients with valid prescriptions. They are primarily regulated by state pharmacy boards and are not required to comply with federal cGMP standards. 503B outsourcing facilities may compound without patient-specific prescriptions, can sell in bulk to healthcare facilities, and are subject to FDA inspection and cGMP requirements. Knowing this distinction is a high-yield MPJE topic.
How to Get More Practice Questions
These 8 questions cover a small fraction of what the MPJE tests. To be fully prepared, you need hundreds of questions covering both federal law and your specific state's pharmacy practice act. Generic federal law questions alone are not sufficient — 40–60% of your actual MPJE will be state-specific.
The most comprehensive state-specific MPJE question banks are available at PharmacyExam.com, with 150–225+ questions per jurisdiction for all 51 U.S. jurisdictions — updated with the latest 2026 state pharmacy laws and complete legal rationales for every answer.
📌 Next Steps After These Practice Questions
Score yourself: 7–8 correct = strong federal law foundation, focus your remaining prep on state-specific content. 5–6 correct = review the missed topics before adding state-specific content. Below 5 = dedicate at least one full week exclusively to federal pharmacy law before moving to state-specific preparation.